Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Ron:

On Mon, Feb 22, 2010 at 2:56 PM, Ron Snider <sarasotapt AT comcast.net> wrote:

> Actually, in response, the entire scenario is off topic.  However, the
> crux of Gen. 10:25 is the term 'erets, which is on point for the list.
> Of the 85X or so it has been used to that point in Genesis, 95% or more
> of them can be translated as dry land, without doing any injustice to
> the text.  Only in a few (Gen. 1:1,2) does it mean the entire planet,
> and only in 1 that I could find did it actually refer to the inhabitants
> of the planet.  Gen. 6:11, but only the first usage in that verse.
>

On a point of Hebrew language, even in this verse I can find no indication
that anything other than the physical earth is meant. I do not see the
inhabitants as referenced in this verse by this usage.

>
> Since the term was explicitly defined by the author in Gen. 1:10, the
> burden of proof is on those that say it *CANNOT* mean dry land in Gen.
> 10:25.
>

Ancient writers who did not know about continental drift can be excused, but
not modern writers. Are there any cases in Genesis where “earth” can be a
metaphorical reference to the inhabitants thereof? Any place in Tanakh? I
have not researched the subject, but admit that Ron has put forth an
intriguing question.

>
> Regards,
>
> Ron Snider
>

Karl W. Randolph.