Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Randall Buth <randallbuth AT gmail.com>]

>
I use one passage as an example, namely, John 3:16. A strictly
literal translation would be: "For God loved the world so much that
he gave his only-begotten /unique son, in order that everyone showing
faith in him might not be destroyed but have everlasting life."  The
word "destroy" is subjunctive, and the question is: Is the meaning
that the one showing faith in Jesus *perhaps* will not be destroyed,
or does Jesus mean that the one showing faith *with certainty* will
not be destroyed but have everlasting life? In other words: does the
subjunctive form here have the same function as an indicative?
>

I would have to say, No, the subjunctive does not have the same
function as the indicative. the clauses are in the world of
'intention' not the world of 'indicative'.
If you know that the speaker will make good on his intentions,
then it is the character of the speaker and not the grammar that is
dictating.

ERRWSO
IWANHS



-- 
Randall Buth, PhD
www.biblicalulpan.org
randallbuth AT gmail.com
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