Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Steve Miller" <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>]

John,
For a man to "laqach" a woman, without a predicate phrase saying for what or
to where he took her, means to take for marriage as in Gen 4:19; 6:2; 11:29;
19:14; 24:3,37; 27:46; 28:1-2,6,9; 31:50; 34:9,16,21; 36:2; 38:6; Ex 34:16;
Num 12:1; Jud 3:6; 1Sa 25:43; 2Sa 5:13; 1 Chron 2:21; 14:3; Ezr 9:12; Ne
10:30; 13:25; Jer 16:2; 29:6. There are probably many others.

The case of Amnon's rape of his 1/2 sister Tamar does not use "Laqach" but
"anah", 2 Sam 13:12, 14.  

Both "laqach" & "anah" are used in Gen 34:2 for Shechem's rape of Dinah.
"anah" makes it clear it was rape. "laqach" is also used in Gen 34:4 for the
attempt to make it honorable.

Jud 21:23 uses a different verb, nasa, for forcibly carrying off a woman to
be a wife. But nasa is also used in Ruth 1:4; 2Ch 11:21; 24:3 where there
wasn't force.

So, no, laqach does not imply rape.

Sincerely,
-Steve Miller
Detroit
www.voiceInWilderness.info
In that day, says the LORD, will I assemble her that halts, and I will
gather her that is driven out, and her that I have afflicted.
And I will make her that halts a remnant, and her that was cast far off a
strong nation. And the LORD shall reign over them in mount Zion from
henceforth, even for ever.  (Micah 4:6-7)
> -----Original Message-----
> From: John Butzu
> Sent: Thursday, October 22, 2009 8:42 PM
> Subject: [b-hebrew] Leviticus 20:17 "Laqach"
> 
> Hi there.  I was unable to find the list of how to properly post so I
> hope you will excuse my errors (if there are any).  My question deal
> with the text of Leviticus 20:17 and the third word laqach...  (I am
> not sure how to properly transliterate this yet).  Does this context
> suggest or imply "rape" or is it traditionally thought to mean
> something less aggressive?
> 
> Thanks in advance,
> John Mark Butzu