Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Yigal Levin <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>]

Dear Deni,

Welcome to the B-Hebrew list. I hope that this post of yours will be the
first of many, in which we will all be able to learn together.

I certainly agree with the replies that Randall and Dave have already
posted. I just want to remind you that the list rules state that all posts
must be signed with your full name. Additional information, such as titles,
place of work or residence etc., is optional, but first and last (family)
names are a must.

Have a very good week!


Yigal Levin
Co-moderator, B-Hebrew

-----Original Message-----
From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Dianne Burke
Sent: Saturday, September 26, 2009 6:58 AM
To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: [b-hebrew] Judges 14:19 & Judges 16:1

Dear Sirs,

this is my first time on this lists.  I am rather new to Hebrew and I am
only beginning to find out how useful some knowledge of the langauge and
grammar is to my studies.

I am recently in discussion with an individual on the topic of Samson and he
has introduced the most extra-ordinary and unbelievable points on Samson.
And before I discussed these things further with him, I wanted to get a more
professional opinion.

Samson was a Nazarite and part of the vow is to avoid touching dead bodies.

In this verse:
Jdg 14:19 The LORD's spirit empowered him. He went down to Ashkelon
and*murdered
* thirty men. He took their clothes and gave them to the men who had solved
the riddle. He was furious as he went back home.

To me, it's clear from the text that the Hebrew word for "murdered" (נכה *
nakah)* is correctly translated.

However, my opponent makes the following point:

*By removing them before the men were dead. Death from a wound is rarely
instantaneous - a man may be terminally wounded but live on for some time.
Consider that Jesus was nailed to the wood to die, then his garments were
removed and divided among the soldiers (John 19:23); he actually died some
hours later.*

My oponent is arguing that the word "nakah" in this instance doesn't mean
that these men were completely dead.

I come to you to ask your opinion on the matter of the grammar and the
definition of the word "nakah" in it's proper context.

ALSO

It has been brought up that Samson in Judges 16:1, did not actually have
sexual intercourse with the harlot, yet from my understanding "he came on
unto her" is an idiom used for sexual intercourse.

Can I have your thoughts on this.

Much appreciated.

Deni