Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Randall Buth <randallbuth AT gmail.com>]

> Dear people,
>
> 1) In verse three we have the word אֶת-חֲמֹרוֹ. Why does the waw-cholem
> gets replaced with a cholem?

Spelling in the First Temple had a tendency to only use one long vowel marking
with a vav, yud, or he. When Hamor 'donkey' is alone it can take a holem-vav,
but when it has a suffix, they tended to write the suffix and then they didn't
write any more vowels with helping consonants.


> 2) In verse 5 of Genesis 22 we have the cohortatives נֵלְכָה and
> וְנָשׁוּבָה. I am not sure if וְנִשְׁתַּחֲוֶה is one, it has a segol, but it
> is surrounded by other cohortatives. Who can clarify this?

Yes, lamed-yud verbs do not mark the volitional -a ending, so in
context the verb ve-nishtaHave is volitional/cohortative


> I have Joüon/Muraoka (English version) and J.M. Lettinga (Dutch grammar),
> so you can reference those if you want.
>
> Kind regards,
>
> Michiel Borkent


-- 
Randall Buth, PhD
www.biblicalulpan.org
randallbuth AT gmail.com
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