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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: George Athas <George.Athas AT moore.edu.au>
- To: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
- Subject: [b-hebrew] Why hireq in YR$ (Deut 4.1, 22)?
- Date: Mon, 18 May 2009 13:08:54 +1000
Does anyone have any thoughts as to why the root YR$ (to possess, dispossess)
takes a hireq vowel (rather than patah) after the resh in Deut 4.1 and 22?
The form in both verses is Qal Weqatal 2mp: וִירִשְׁתֶּם — wiyri$tem.
Regards,
GEORGE ATHAS
Moore Theological College (Sydney, Australia)
www.moore.edu.au
-
[b-hebrew] Why hireq in YR$ (Deut 4.1, 22)?,
George Athas, 05/17/2009
- Re: [b-hebrew] Why hireq in YR$ (Deut 4.1, 22)?, Yitzhak Sapir, 05/18/2009
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