b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: AMK Judaica <amkjudaica AT hotmail.com>
- To: Hebrew List <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
- Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Reconstructing Ancient Languages
- Date: Fri, 24 Apr 2009 02:38:32 -0400
isaac,
it is true that hebrew was not employed in conversation outside of small
circles until relatively recently, but as a literary language it never died
out.
also, with my original question i really had pronounciation in mind. in this
regard too there has been a continuous (albeit evolving) living tradition in
ritual and educational contexts.
have a good weekend,
ari kinsberg
CC: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
From: if AT math.bu.edu
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Reconstructing Ancient Languages
Date: Thu, 23 Apr 2009 21:53:29 -0400
To: amkjudaica AT hotmail.com
Ari,
As to "living tradition" consider the fact that the greatest Hebrew writer of
modern times, Nobel prize winner, S. Y. Agnon (1887-1970) learned Hebrew in
school from the Tanakh, the Mishnah and the Midrashim.
Hebrew was not spoken also at the home of the greatest Hebrew poet of modern
times H. N. Bialik (1873-1934).
Isaac Fried, Boston University
On Apr 23, 2009, at 1:15 PM, AMK Judaica wrote:
Isaac,
perhaps i wasn't clear.
if it has a living tradition/s (hebrew, arabic, aramaic, amharic, etc.) then
it is not dead.
if it has no living tradition (akkadian, ugaritic, punic, etc.) then it is
dead.
-ari kinsberg
CC: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
From: if AT math.bu.edu
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Reconstructing Ancient Languages
Date: Thu, 23 Apr 2009 12:55:29 -0400
To: amkjudaica AT hotmail.com
Ari;
If it has a "living tradition" how can it be "completely", or even
"partially", dead?
Isaac Fried, Boston University
On Apr 23, 2009, at 12:07 PM, AMK Judaica wrote:
Incidentally, for the semiticists/linhuists out there, I'm curious
whether you think it is or easier (or fraught with greater
pitfalls) to reconstruct an ancient language that still has a
living tradition or one that is complete dead.
-Ari Kinsberg
Brooklyn, NY
From: amkjudaica AT hotmail.com
To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Date: Thu, 23 Apr 2009 11:21:09 -0400
Subject: [b-hebrew] FW: Beit/Veit
yigal,
how do we know the pronounciation of ugaritic and akkadian (or for
that matter, classical arabic)?
thanks,
ari kinsbeg
brooklyn, new york
Date: Thu, 23 Apr 2009 09:18:23 +0300
From: leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il
To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Beit/Veit
Hi again,
That was exactly my point: as far as we can tell, Biblical Hebrew
did not
have a "v" sound. Not only doesn't Arabic, but neither did
Ugaritc or
Akkadian, which are much closer in time to Biblical Hebrew. So
yes, Isaac's
wife was something like "Reb'ka" (with what the Mesoretes called
a Sh'va),
which is how the Greek got "Rebekka".
The problem with D and Dh (Th as in "that") is just like B/V -
since Greek
does not have a Dh sound, we have no way of knowing whether when
Greek wrote
Delta, they heard Dalet or Dhalet or both. The only thing that we
know is
that in Biblical Hebrew the difference was not "regular" enough
to warrent
two letter-signs like in Ugaritic, but by the time of the
Mesorets, they
were able to include the differences in the BGDKPT rule. The
same, BTW, is
true for Gimmel, however it was "originally" pronounced.
Yigal Levin
----- Original Message -----
From: "Yodan" <yodan AT yodanco.com>
To: "'b-hebrew'" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thursday, April 23, 2009 8:56 AM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Beit/Veit
Yigal, thank you and thanks to Karl and Kevin.
A question to you and to others:
Does the fact that Arabic doesn't have a "v" consonant support the
possibility that Hebrew too didn't have a "v" consonant (we know
that VAV
was pronounced like WAW, and this is still the case in some Hebrew
"dialects")? If so, perhaps what later became VEIT was
pronounced like
BEIT?
(e.g. Ribka later became Rivka?).
A somewhat related question: Does anyone know if DALED is
believed to have
been pronounced as an emphatic consonant, like in Arabic,
perhaps in
addition to another pronunciation (like "d" or like "th" in
"that", as do
Yemenite Jews)?
Thanks!
Rivka Sherman-Gold
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-
Re: [b-hebrew] Beit/Veit
, (continued)
- Re: [b-hebrew] Beit/Veit, Yigal Levin, 04/23/2009
- Re: [b-hebrew] Beit/Veit, Yodan, 04/23/2009
- Re: [b-hebrew] Beit/Veit, Yigal Levin, 04/23/2009
- Re: [b-hebrew] Beit/Veit, George Athas, 04/23/2009
- [b-hebrew] FW: Beit/Veit, AMK Judaica, 04/23/2009
- [b-hebrew] Reconstructing Ancient Languages, AMK Judaica, 04/23/2009
- Re: [b-hebrew] Reconstructing Ancient Languages, K Randolph, 04/23/2009
- Re: [b-hebrew] Reconstructing Ancient Languages, ISAAC FRIED, 04/23/2009
- [b-hebrew] Reconstructing Ancient Languages, AMK Judaica, 04/23/2009
- Re: [b-hebrew] Reconstructing Ancient Languages, Isaac Fried, 04/23/2009
- Re: [b-hebrew] Reconstructing Ancient Languages, AMK Judaica, 04/24/2009
- Re: [b-hebrew] Beit/Veit, K Randolph, 04/23/2009
- [b-hebrew] Beit/Veit, AMK Judaica, 04/23/2009
- Re: [b-hebrew] Beit/Veit, K Randolph, 04/23/2009
- Re: [b-hebrew] Beit/Veit, AMK Judaica, 04/23/2009
- Re: [b-hebrew] Beit/Veit, K Randolph, 04/23/2009
- Re: [b-hebrew] The use of the Yiqtol in Isaiah 1:21, Yitzhak Sapir, 04/21/2009
- Re: [b-hebrew] The use of the Yiqtol in Isaiah 1:21, Rolf Furuli, 04/22/2009
- Message not available
- Re: [b-hebrew] The use of the Yiqtol in Isaiah 1:21, Yitzhak Sapir, 04/22/2009
- Re: [b-hebrew] The use of the Yiqtol in Isaiah 1:21, Rolf Furuli, 04/22/2009
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