Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Leonard Jayawardena <leonardj AT live.com>]

My thanks to the three who responded to my post headed as above.
 
Unfortunately, however, the point taken up in all three responses concerns a 
fact I mentioned only *incidentally* in my post as part of background 
information: that understanding "the blood of Jezreel" as a reference to 
Jehu's massacre at Jezreel as recorded in 2 Kings 9 results in a 
contradiction (or at least an apparent contradiction) between 2 Kings 10:30 
and Hosea 1:4. The resolution or otherwise of this problem was not the 
purpose of my post, which I should think is more appropriate for a general 
Bible discussion forum than B-Hebrew--rather the purpose was to get the list 
members to evaluate my "linguistic" argument for taking "the blood of 
Jezreel" as a possessive genitive. Let me rephrase my question this way: If I 
said that the usage of the expression "the blood of Jezreel" in the Hebrew OT 
requires or at least strongly supports understanding "Jezreel" in "the blood 
of Jezreel" as a possessive genitive--I have given details of the basis for 
this view in the earlier post--how would a Hebrew scholar respond to that? 
Would he agree that the translation of this phrase as "the massacre at 
Jezreel," or "the blood shed at Jezreel," etc. is influenced more by the 
coincidence that Jehu happened to massacre some members of the house of Ahab 
in a town called Jezreel than by a consideration of how the phrase "the blood 
of X" is used in the Hebrew OT (and extra-biblical Hebrew literature)?
 
In a future post I will mention a few exegetical reasons why I think "the 
massacre at Jezreel" as a translation/interpretation of "the blood of 
Jezreel" does not work in Hosea 1:4-5, provided there is sufficient interest 
in this subject and the moderator will not object to that.   
 
Leonard Jayawardena
Sri Lanka 
 
 
 
 
 
 
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>From leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il  Wed Aug  6 02:16:55 2008
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Date: Wed, 06 Aug 2008 09:15:48 +0300
From: Yigal Levin <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
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Subject: [b-hebrew] LeUza ben Baal Hanan stamp
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Hi All,

The Encyclopedea Miqrait entry for Baal-Hanan has a drawing of a stamp =
that says "LeUza ben Baal Hanan". Does anyone know where or when this =
was found or published, and if it's still considered genuine? It's not =
in Ahituv's book.

Thanks, and appologies for the multiple postings.

Yigal Levin
>From leonardj AT live.com  Wed Aug  6 04:54:58 2008
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From: Leonard Jayawardena <leonardj AT live.com>
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I write to make a correction to my post of today. The first "the blood of 
Jezreel" in the following sentence in the second paragraph: "Let me rephrase 
my question this way: If I said that the usage of the expression "the blood 
of Jezreel" in the Hebrew OT requires or at least strongly supports 
understanding "Jezreel" in "the blood of Jezreel" as a possessive genitive--I 
have given details of the basis for this view in the earlier post--how would 
a Hebrew scholar respond to that?"  should be amended to "the blood of ...," 
so that the full sentence reads: "Let me rephrase my question this way: If I 
said that the usage of the expression "the blood of ..." in the Hebrew OT 
requires or at least strongly supports understanding "Jezreel" in "the blood 
of Jezreel" as a possessive genitive--I have given details of the basis for 
this view in the earlier post--how would a Hebrew scholar respond to that?"   
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>From kwrandolph AT gmail.com  Wed Aug  6 12:59:35 2008
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From: "K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
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Dear Leonard:
This sounds like a case typical of grammaticists who like to split hairs.

All the responses so far have had the conclusion that "Jesreel" refers to a
place, not an individual.

As I understand your question, are you asking that the grammatical structure
insists that "Jesreel" be a person? If so, then the responses so far state
"No".

Karl W. Randolph.

2008/8/6 Leonard Jayawardena <leonardj AT live.com>

>
> I write to make a correction to my post of today. The first "the blood of
> Jezreel" in the following sentence in the second paragraph: "Let me rephrase
> my question this way: If I said that the usage of the expression "the blood
> of Jezreel" in the Hebrew OT requires or at least strongly supports
> understanding "Jezreel" in "the blood of Jezreel" as a possessive
> genitive--I have given details of the basis for this view in the earlier
> post--how would a Hebrew scholar respond to that?"  should be amended to
> "the blood of ...," so that the full sentence reads: "Let me rephrase my
> question this way: If I said that the usage of the expression "the blood of
> ..." in the Hebrew OT requires or at least strongly supports understanding
> "Jezreel" in "the blood of Jezreel" as a possessive genitive--I have given
> details of the basis for this view in the earlier post--how would a Hebrew
> scholar respond to that?"
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