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  • From: Gabe Eisenstein <gabe AT cascadeaccess.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] pelesheth hitro'a'i
  • Date: Mon, 07 Jul 2008 12:44:38 -0700

Karl:

Well it looks like I've been misled by Soncino (and King James) again. My Hebrew is elementary. All I can see is that Strong says it is RW( in the imperative hithpolel, and that hithpolel involves a consonantal doubling that gives the two ayins.

If Strong and the Masoretes are both untrustworthy, can you recommend better resources for a beginner like me?

You say you don't see David taking offense in the text. It's certainly clear in the translation, but ... that rascal Soncino has interpolated the word "complains" after "If David comes, who slew the Philistine...". But Schottenstein also explains that David has come to "object" to something.
I think they're right, and that it can be inferred from the question "What if David comes?" and the answer "I must make them friends". God has to make them friends because David is angry; why else did he "come"?
Rashi and Maharsha explain David's taking offense in relation to the pardoning of Doeg (by the Doreshe Reshumoth). But it seems to me that the piece about David is independent of the saying of the D.R.

I don't know whether you think it relevant, but God makes them "friends" RY(YM -- which seems to be some kind of wordplay on HTR((Y.

I have also noticed something else: the Talmudic text has inserted a vav in its quotation: it has HTRW((Y rather than HTR((Y
What does that tell us?

Gabe Eisenstein





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