Biblical Hebrew Forum

[<pporta AT oham.net>]

Karl,
in a searching work on Hebrew patterns (see below) I found nothing that 
draws near to a word that is built on roots ayin-ayin and has waw/shuruq 
after the first root consonant and taw after the second one.
The nearest thing to what you suggest is a pu'al perfect, second person 
singular feminine of verbs lamed-taw, with no sample in the bible. But this 
has nothing to do with our noun in discussion.
You will perhaps argue that not being on the pattern list does not mean it 
does not exist. Maybe. But take into account that this search on patterns 
was built up only after a very, very extensive research work.

See ptr 1593 in www.oham.net/out/S-d/S-d.html
The explanation on this pattern will be on the net within some days, but it 
is exactly what I say.

Yours,

Pere Porta



----- Original Message ----- 
From: "K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Monday, March 24, 2008 10:21 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Ecc 12:6-7


> Pere:
>
> On Mon, Mar 24, 2008 at 10:59 AM, <pporta AT oham.net> wrote:
>
> > You would be quite right if the noun "glt" exists. But... only "g(w)lh"
> > exists as absolute, as I said (Zec 4:3). Then "g(w)lt" must be in
> > construct.
> >
> > Heartly,
> >
> > Pere Porta
> >
> > Your answer is assuming GLT comes from GWLH, it could also come from GLL.
> We don't know for certain. That's why I wrote, "We kid ourselves to think 
> we
> know Biblical Hebrew well enough to say with absolute certainty…"
> When I wrote my dictionary for my own use, I recognized that there are 
> many
> times that intellectual honesty compels us to admit that we are not sure
> what are the meanings to many lexical items. We can't even be sure how 
> many
> there are. While I acknowledge that the Masoretes did an impressive job in
> recording the vowel sounds connected with the consonants written in the
> text, yet at the same time I suspect that many times those sounds were
> recorded mechanically without reference to grammar or meaning that those
> sounds represented. Then many modern grammarians and lexicographers can 
> end
> up building towers of words upon a faulty foundation. I have seen many
> times, some even on this list, where a complex, difficult to understand
> sentence can be reduced to a simple, easily understood one by changing one
> or two points.
>
> Back to GLT, does it exist as an absolute noun? I learned long ago that
> Gesenius and BDB cannot be trusted and that the Masoretic points are often
> wrong ("often" in my book is as few as one in a hundred). In the context 
> of
> the closing sections of the preceding verse, it is my understanding that 
> we
> are dealing with an already dead body, being prepared for burial and the
> burial itself. Hence GLT refers to the rolling of the body while wrapping 
> it
> in burial cloths.
>
> Yours, Karl W. Randolph.
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