Biblical Hebrew Forum

[<pporta AT oham.net>]

There is a similar instance in Zec 8:21 but here "akhat" seems to refer to 
"ir", town, which is a feminine.
Now, several instances are attested in the Bible where the feminine absolute 
adjective means what you call "neuter".
Look at www.oham.net/out/N-t/N-t123.html
Maybe this helps.

Pere Porta
Barcelona (Spain)



----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Ron Snider" <sarasotapt AT comcast.net>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Saturday, March 15, 2008 6:38 PM
Subject: [b-hebrew] Qoheleth 7:27


> I am working on Ecclesiastes 7:27, which uses two feminine adjectives
> 'echadh (not sure what transliteration scheme to use here).  Is anyone
> aware of an independant usage of the feminine adjective to refer to
> something that is grammatically masculine?  In other words, my
> inclination is to translated this as "I compared one woman to another in
> order to find an explanation/conclusion.
>
> If you have some concrete examples that this should be translated as a
> neuter one thing to another thing, I would be interested in the verses.
>
> I do not have any theological axe to grind here, but want to reflect
> what Solomon really meant.
>
> Thanks in advance,
>
> Ron Snider,
> Pastor-teacher
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