Skip to Content.
Sympa Menu

b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Qoheleth 7:27

b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org

Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum

List archive

Chronological Thread  
  • From: <pporta AT oham.net>
  • To: "Ron Snider" <sarasotapt AT comcast.net>, <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Qoheleth 7:27
  • Date: Sat, 15 Mar 2008 19:27:35 +0100

There is a similar instance in Zec 8:21 but here "akhat" seems to refer to "ir", town, which is a feminine.
Now, several instances are attested in the Bible where the feminine absolute adjective means what you call "neuter".
Look at www.oham.net/out/N-t/N-t123.html
Maybe this helps.

Pere Porta
Barcelona (Spain)



----- Original Message ----- From: "Ron Snider" <sarasotapt AT comcast.net>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Saturday, March 15, 2008 6:38 PM
Subject: [b-hebrew] Qoheleth 7:27


I am working on Ecclesiastes 7:27, which uses two feminine adjectives
'echadh (not sure what transliteration scheme to use here). Is anyone
aware of an independant usage of the feminine adjective to refer to
something that is grammatically masculine? In other words, my
inclination is to translated this as "I compared one woman to another in
order to find an explanation/conclusion.

If you have some concrete examples that this should be translated as a
neuter one thing to another thing, I would be interested in the verses.

I do not have any theological axe to grind here, but want to reflect
what Solomon really meant.

Thanks in advance,

Ron Snider,
Pastor-teacher
_______________________________________________
b-hebrew mailing list
b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew






Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.

Top of Page