Biblical Hebrew Forum

["K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Dear Pere:
Look at the context: "You are my witnesses … that you may know … that I am
he …" While there is not an object listed directly with the verb, the
context supplies what is to be known.

Incidentally, the following verb carries more the idea of "that you will
trust what I say/show to you", for if it meant "to believe in me" is should
be followed by a BY, not a LY as the verse has. Probably a better
translation would be on the order of "… that you may know, trust, understand
that …"

I hope this helps.

Karl W. Randolph.

On Thu, Feb 14, 2008 at 8:45 AM, <pporta AT oham.net> wrote:

> In Is 43:10 we find the word TD)W, of verb YD), used absolutely, without a
> complement or object of any kind.
>
> [I do not think that LY that comes after WT(MYNW is the object of TD)W]
>
> Now, I remark that when translated it is often translated together with
> next
> words "WT(MYNW LY" this way: "so that you know and believe me"
>
> That is to say: "(I chose you so that) you know me and believe me".
>
> I ask: is this translation right?
> To have "to know me" there should be the pronoun (WTY, me, after TD)W,
> should it not?
>
> If I'm right, what can be the true sense of TD)W used absolutely, without
> any object?
>
> Regards.
>
> Pere Porta
> Barcelona (Catalonia, Spain)
>
>
>