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Re: [b-hebrew] YD) used absolutely

From: <pporta AT oham.net>
To: "K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>, "b-hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] YD) used absolutely
Date: Thu, 14 Feb 2008 17:45:31 +0100

In Is 43:10 we find the word TD)W, of verb YD), used absolutely, without a complement or object of any kind.

[I do not think that LY that comes after WT(MYNW is the object of TD)W]

Now, I remark that when translated it is often translated together with next words "WT(MYNW LY" this way: "so that you know and believe me"

That is to say: "(I chose you so that) you know me and believe me".

I ask: is this translation right?
To have "to know me" there should be the pronoun (WTY, me, after TD)W, should it not?

If I'm right, what can be the true sense of TD)W used absolutely, without any object?

Regards.

Pere Porta
Barcelona (Catalonia, Spain)

[b-hebrew] killing the messenger Exodus 23:23, kenneth greifer, 02/08/2008
- Re: [b-hebrew] killing the messenger Exodus 23:23, K Randolph, 02/08/2008
  - Re: [b-hebrew] Which subject?, pporta, 02/11/2008
    - Re: [b-hebrew] Which subject?, Yigal Levin, 02/11/2008
      - Re: [b-hebrew] Which subject?, pporta, 02/12/2008
        
        Re: [b-hebrew] Which subject?, K Randolph, 02/12/2008
        
        Re: [b-hebrew] YD) used absolutely, pporta, 02/14/2008
        
        Re: [b-hebrew] YD) used absolutely, K Randolph, 02/15/2008
    - [b-hebrew] two new Qumran Hebrew articles, goranson, 02/11/2008