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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Ecclesiastes 3:11

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  • From: "Yitzhak Sapir" <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>
  • To: "b-hebrew Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Ecclesiastes 3:11
  • Date: Sat, 17 Nov 2007 21:12:45 +0000

On Nov 17, 2007 8:01 PM, Bryant J. Williams III wrote:
> Dear Yitzhak,
>
> Reference Gesenius' Hebrew Grammar, page 483, Para. 152y, #2. It states the
> following:

I am not sure what Gesenius you are quoting, but I think it would be
nice to also
reference the version that is online. The statement about the
negatives is here:
http://quod.lib.umich.edu/cgi/t/text/pageviewer-idx?c=genpub;idno=ahy1993.1853.001;seq=00000276
That about ?$r is here:
http://quod.lib.umich.edu/cgi/t/text/pageviewer-idx?c=genpub;idno=ahy1993.1853.001;seq=00000097
http://quod.lib.umich.edu/cgi/t/text/pageviewer-idx?c=genpub;idno=ahy1993.1853.001;seq=00000234

I think the entry in HALOT on ?$r is also good.

On ?$r we can also refer to research that Holmstedt has publicized online:
http://individual.utoronto.ca/holmstedt/HolmstedtHabakkuk.pdf
http://individual.utoronto.ca/holmstedt/HolmstedtDissertation.pdf (393 pages)

I didn't read his dissertation yet. However, I doubt that his conclusions
differ from what I suggested -- In normative Biblical Hebrew, ?$r
always introduces
a clause, and separates between complete clauses. "mbly" is not the
end of a complete clause. It can't be divided this way. However, "mbly" is
very similar to "without" and ?$r to "which", so that we could argue that the
reading "without which" is justified if we adopt some non-normative syntax.
But we still have to explain the non-normative syntax. Greek influence
may provide the solution to this, but I don't know Greek to know if it would
have provided such influence.

Yitzhak Sapir




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