Biblical Hebrew Forum

[<pporta AT oham.net>]

> Karl W. Randolph:
> 1.  If MWLDT/mowledeth  "refers to where one is born", then how do you
> understand the usage of that word  at Genesis 43: 7 and 48:6?
> 2.  Why do you understand the  mem as meaning "where"?  Doesn't mem  mean,
> rather, "from"?  Doesn't MWLDT  literally mean "from brought forth"? 
> Isn't the
> focus of MWLDT on "descendants", those human beings who come  "from" being
> "brought forth" by one's father?  That's how I see it.

__________

Jim,

Please, do not mistake an initial M meaning "from" for the prefix MW.
As Karl pointed out in his replay, prefix MW is a mark of Participle and 
more precisely of Participle Hiph'il of some verbs peh"yod.
So, MWLDT is the Hiph'il Participle, singular feminine of verb YLD, to bring 
forth.
Thus its literal meaning is "(female) who causes to bring forth", the same 
as "MWRDT" means "(female) who causes to go down" (of YRD)

MWLDT does not appear in the Bible in its absolute form but only with 
suffixes.
Summing up: MW has nothing to do with M = from.


__________


> Why do you see the focus of MWLDT as being on the geographical place 
> where
> one is born?  Are you viewing  MWLDT as meaning "from [the geographical 
> place
> where one was] brought  forth"?
> 3.  Doesn't MWLDT usually  refer to people, namely certain of one's 
> relatives
> (one's father's descendants),  rather than referring to a geographical 
> place
> (where one was born)?
> Jim Stinehart
> Evanston, Illinois

> From my answer above it is clear that MWLDT must rather point out to 
ancestors than to descendants.

I hope this helps.

Pere Porta
Barcelona (Spain)