Biblical Hebrew Forum

[dwashbur AT nyx.net]

On 30 Oct 2007 at 7:27, Yitzhak Sapir wrote:

> On 10/30/07, Dave Washburn wrote:
> 
> > On 30 Oct 2007 at 8:22, Yigal Levin wrote in part:
> >
> > >Since none of us have yet recieved direct prophecy from God, we
> > > cannot "take on faith" that the authors of the Bible did either.
> >
> > This is perhaps the biggest fallacy of all in "modern" scholarship.  "It 
> > hasn't
> > happened to me or anyone I know, therefore it doesn't happen."  Yes, I
> > know I'm simplifying, but that's the essence of the argument.  And it's
> > nothing but a cop-out.
> 
> The argument is actually more complex.  Let us suppose that we do
> have a proven example of a prophecy from God in exhibit A.  How do we
> know that exhibit B is also an example of a prophecy from God?  Well, if
> the text in exhibit B deals only with events that took place in the past, we
> could suggest that two necessary (but insufficient) conditions are that
> 1) those events took place exactly as described, and 2) the text is proven
> to have been written before those events.  What this means, however,
> is that we have to prove both (1) and (2) independent of the assumption
> that it was a prophecy from God.  Otherwise, we get into circular
> reasoning.

That wasn't what you said.  And I'm not going to get into this any further 
with you.

Dave Washburn
Why do it right when you can do it again?