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  • From: Yigal Levin <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
  • To: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] Eretz Yisrael - Palestine
  • Date: Tue, 16 Oct 2007 08:30:22 +0200

Shoshanna,

Although it was I who wrote that in present-day academic discourse it would be better not to use "Palestine" when referring to the Land in pre-Roman times, I don't recall the Torah ever calling it "Eretz Yisrael" either. In fact in the entire Tanakh, the term "Eretz Yisrael" is NEVER used as a general geographic name for the entire Land, but only for those parts that were occupied by Israelites during whatever period was being referred to. The one possible exception is relatively late, in Ezekiel 48:18, where the Jordan River is said to be the border between Gilead and "the land of Israel". But even here, Ezekiel was probably referring to the boundaries of the Neo-Babylonian period provinces, and using "the land of Israel" to refer to the province of Samaria.

In any case, as George wrote, "It will be taken as read that innocuous references to 'Palestine' are mere geographic labels which make no statement about current politics in the Middle East."



Yigal Levin


----- Original Message ----- From: "Shoshanna Walker" <rosewalk AT concentric.net>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Tuesday, October 16, 2007 3:20 AM
Subject: [b-hebrew] Calm Down! (FROM MODERATORS)


G-d/the Torah doesn't use that term to denote this part of the earth,
why does it have to do with politics to object to using it? Why
should it be used in the first place when talking about Torah?

Shoshanna





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