Biblical Hebrew Forum

[<pporta AT oham.net>]

> If a letter is not
> radical, then it is a personal pronoun.

_________

So, the final (paragogic) N in words like YFD:(WN, they knew (Dt 8:3), is a 
personal pronoun? If yes, please explain it.

Pere Porta
Barcelona (Spain)






Admittedly, it is not much to
> work with, yet Hebrew manages admirably.
> In the word (ACMA)-U-T, 'independence', from the root (CM, the
> endings -U-T = HU)-AT, are two personal pronouns for the thing
> itself. It is to be distinguished from (ACMA)-I = (CMA)-HI), '[he is]
> independent', (ACMA)-I-T = (ACMA)-HI)-AT, '[she is] independent',
> (ACM-AH = (ACMA-HI), 'strength', (CM-AT, '[the] strength [of]', (ACM-
> U-T = (ACM-HU)-AT, 'essence', (ACM-I = 'self', (ACM-I-U-T = (ACM-HI)-
> HU)-AT, '[the] essence [of]'.
> In (ACAM-O-T = (ACAM-HU)-AT, the O = HU) is for the plural and the T
> = AT is for the gender. Sorry, but that's all Hebrew has to work with
> and we need to patiently bear with her.
> Of course, the words (ACMA)UT, 'independence', and (ACAMOT, 'bones'
> are related. They are related by their common progenitor, the root
> (CM, 'to be massive, to be strong, to be substanial'.
> The final H is a personal pronoun, not necessarily feminine. I have a
> well thumbed copy of Zeidel's Hikrei Lashon somewhere here, but I
> need to find it.
> The word "paragogic H" is never going to cross the threshold of my
> lips because it demeans the Hebrew language.
>
> Isaac Fried, Boston University
>
> On Oct 6, 2007, at 1:16 PM, Yaakov Stein wrote:
>
> > Isaac,
> >
> > Please do not misunderstand my statements.
> > I am not sticking blindly to traditional grammar books,
> > and I have a lot of respect for researchers who try to systematically
> > discover the original forms using internal evidence and logical
> > reasoning.
> >
> > However, as a scientist, I am also rather skeptical about theories
> > based on insufficient evidence.
> >
> > To show you what I mean, imagine someone 1000 years from now
> > trying to understand the terminating WT in various words in modern
> > Hebrew.
> > He comes across  )CM)WT  (independence).
> > Someone tells him that the terminating WT is such words is
> > pronounced ut and is different from the terminating WT in
> > )CMWT  (bones) which indicates a plural form.
> >
> > But our researcher is unconvinced. He doesn't believe that Hebrew
> > speakers idiosyncratically distorted and bloated their words,
> > and claims that we can not be sure how the WT was pronounced
> > and that all WT meant plural forms. This leads him to conclude
> > that independence comes from bones, and he theorizes that
> > this derived from Ezekiel's vision of the dry bones.
> >
> > OK, our researcher gets a paper out of this, but WE know that
> > it is nonsense.
> >
> > How can we conclude that ALL terminal H mean feminine forms ?
> > Zeidel (Hikrei Lashon) gives examples of terminal H as an archaic
> > plural form.
> > We certainly have the directive final H.
> > So why is the paragogic H the only one you can't accept ?
> >
> > Y(J)S
>
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