Biblical Hebrew Forum

["K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Peter:

On 8/24/07, Peter Bekins <pbekins AT fuse.net> wrote:
> Karl,
>
> You wrote:
>
>  >>Proverbs 13:1 בן חכם מוסר אב
>  >>Proverbs 15:20 בן חכם ישׂמח־אב
>  >>
>  >>Looking at the verses above, one would think that the first two words
>  >>are the same, but they aren't. In the top example, the only word that
>  >>fits the context that can fulfill the function of a verb is BN...
>
> I don't know about this one. You don't discern(BYN) MUSAR, you LQX it
> or $M( it or QBL it or something similar.

But you also YD( it (Proverbs 1:2) which has a similar function as BYN.

> ... As you state, and
> especially in context with )B, your obvious first impression is to
> read "wise son", and I think this is the correct reading.
>
> The full verse is:
>
> בן חכם מוסר אב ולץ לא שמע גערה
>
> Hebrew poetry commonly uses a technique called "gapping" where one
> colon has no verb (ie, an obvious gap), but the reader knows to
> supply the verb from the parallel clause. In this case that verb is $M
> (, which fits much better with MUSAR. The BN XKM is being contrasted
> with the LC while the MUSAR (B is a synonym of G(RH. Thus you are
> correct to feel tension as if there is a verb missing in the first
> clause, but the answer is not to read BN as a verb, but to supply $M
> ( in contrast to the second clause: L) $M(. I would translate:
>
> "A wise son [listens to] a father's discipline, but a scoffer does
> not listen to rebuke"
>
> sincerely,
> Peter Bekins
>
Yes, there is gapping, but do you know of other cases where the verb
comes from a parallelism that follows, instead of preceding? Secondly,
is there another case where there is contrasting parallelism with the
negative verb is used in the positive in the gapped section?

If you can show examples that answer my two questions above, then I
can entertain your suggestion, other than that, I will maintain that
in Proverbs 13:1, the first word is a verb, not a noun.

Karl W. Randolph.