Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Petr Tomasek <tomasek AT etf.cuni.cz>]

On Sat, Aug 04, 2007 at 09:26:03AM -0700, K Randolph wrote:
> Dear All:
> 
> As I was reading through 1 Samuel, I noticed that H$KM is used as a
> noun with a definite article prefix, not as a hiphil verb as pointed.

That's a total nonsense: the definite article is used together with words
denoting time only with a meaning: "this XY". So e.g. הבקר means
"this morning", היום "this day" = "today". But this verse talks
clearly about fourty days...

Besides, do you have any other evindence, that שכם would mean "morning"?

You should go back to your hebrew classes and learn much more before trying
"correct" the massoretic text...

> It is in context with "the evening" as a parallel, indicating the
> Goliath made his challenge twice a day.

No, it doesn't. It's a clear hendyadis.
If the text would want to say that, it would do so explicitely
(e.g. by using פעמים or שנית).

> >From the context, the word should be a noun, not a verb.

Why? Infinitive absolutus is quite a common feature in the
biblical hebrew and makes here much more sense, than the proposed
noun...
 
> What do you all say?
> 
> Karl W. Randolph.

-- 
Petr Tomasek <http://www.etf.cuni.cz/~tomasek>
Jabber: butrus AT jabbim.cz