Biblical Hebrew Forum

[<michaelabernat9001 AT sbcglobal.net>]

To make a long story short, I was reading a commentary on Psalm 91 that 
argued that שַׁדַּי $DY should be translated in such a way that it 
demonstrates God's bounty. I was curious to see how it was translated in the 
Septuagint so I looked it up. I was surprised to find that it was rarely 
translated at all. Usually, the authors substituted God or Lord. Is there 
some reason for this? Was שַׁדַּי considered too holy to translate or 
something?
Sincerely,
Michael Abernathy
>From bsr15 AT cantsl.it.canterbury.ac.nz  Wed Jul 25 18:08:20 2007
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From: Bill Rea <bsr15 AT cantsl.it.canterbury.ac.nz>
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] virginity
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Yigal wrote:-

>BTW - all of the above, about rape being "no big deal", is based on a
>literal reading of the passage involved.

I once read that Philo regarded the seduction of a marriage woman
as a more serious crime than the rape of a virgin. Unfortunately
I can't give you any details of where I read it. But it is consistent
with what we understand from the Hebrew Bible.

Bill Rea, ICT Services, University of Canterbury \_
E-Mail bill.rea AT canterbury.ac.nz                </   New
Phone 64-3-364-2331, Fax  64-3-364-2332        /)  Zealand
Unix Systems Administrator                    (/'