Biblical Hebrew Forum

["K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Harold:

Not only does English use the definite article more sparingly than
does Biblical Hebrew, it uses it more sparingly than even other
Indo-European languages: I am thinking specifically of German.
Therefore it is improper to project English usage back onto Biblical
Hebrew.

This is a case where I think the grammarians are making a mountain out
of a molehill.

Karl W. Randolph.

On 6/19/07, Harold Holmyard <hholmyard3 AT earthlink.net> wrote:
> Dear David,
> ... Of course this is a
> much smaller category of usage than the regular definite article, for
> there are only a limited number of instances where the usage would be
> suitable. But a limited number of occurrences of a usage does not
> invalidate a usage.
>
> Yours,
> Harold Holmyard