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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Joshua 2:1 and 17, Questions

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  • From: "Jason Hare" <jaihare AT gmail.com>
  • To: "Uri Hurwitz" <uhurwitz AT yahoo.com>, b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Joshua 2:1 and 17, Questions
  • Date: Thu, 31 May 2007 09:14:27 -0500

Uri,

In Davidson's Analytical Hebrew and Chaldee Lexicon, H$B(TNW is parsed
as mascline with a 3-pers. c. sing. suffix. Is this the form it would
take with a feminine subject as well?

Thanks,
Jason

On 5/31/07, Uri Hurwitz <uhurwitz AT yahoo.com> wrote:

Your grammatical questions:

1. Shwuatekh hazeh, $B)TK HZH ,is indeed a mistake

of an an ancient scribe since the modifier should

have been in the F. as you noted.

2. Hishbatanu, H$B(TNW ,is correct. Two

men are addressing a female: F single form in

the Hiphil perfect, plus the attached pronominal

suffix for plural.

Uri Hurwitz



Dear B-Hebrew, Last night I read a couple of chapters of Joshua for leisure, and
there are a couple of things that I noticed that I wanted to ask about: (1)
Although $BW(H /shevu'ah/ [שבועה] is feminine, it is modified with the masculine ZH
/zeh/ [זה] in 2:17: נְקִיִּם אֲנַחְנוּ מִשְּׁבֻעָתֵךְ הַזֶּה אֲשֶׁר הִשְׁבַּעְתָּנוּ
NQYM )NXNW M$B(TK HZH )$R H$B(TNW Come to think of it, why is H$B(tnW masculine,
when it is talking about Rahab? (2) Is there any reason why the NIV footnote says
that the word ZWNH /zonah/ [זונה] can be translated as "innkeeper"?
Thanks, Jason


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