Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Jason Hare" <jaihare AT gmail.com>]

Uri,

In Davidson's Analytical Hebrew and Chaldee Lexicon, H$B(TNW is parsed
as mascline with a 3-pers. c. sing. suffix. Is this the form it would
take with a feminine subject as well?

Thanks,
Jason

On 5/31/07, Uri Hurwitz <uhurwitz AT yahoo.com> wrote:
>    Your grammatical questions:
>
>    1. Shwuatekh hazeh, $B)TK  HZH ,is indeed a mistake
>
>  of an an ancient scribe since the modifier should
>
>  have been in the F. as you noted.
>
>    2.  Hishbatanu, H$B(TNW ,is correct. Two
>
> men are addressing a female: F single form in
>
> the Hiphil perfect, plus the attached pronominal
>
>  suffix for plural.
>
>   Uri Hurwitz
>
>
>
> Dear B-Hebrew,    Last night I read a couple of chapters of Joshua for leisure, and  
> there are a couple of things that I noticed that I wanted to ask  about:    (1) 
> Although $BW(H /shevu'ah/ [שבועה] is feminine, it is modified with  the masculine ZH 
> /zeh/ [זה] in 2:17:    נְקִיִּם אֲנַחְנוּ מִשְּׁבֻעָתֵךְ הַזֶּה אֲשֶׁר הִשְׁבַּעְתָּנוּ 
>  NQYM )NXNW M$B(TK HZH )$R H$B(TNW    Come to think of it, why is H$B(tnW masculine, 
> when it is talking about Rahab?    (2) Is there any reason why the NIV footnote says 
> that the word ZWNH  /zonah/ [זונה] can be translated as "innkeeper"?    
> Thanks,  Jason
>
>
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