Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Harold Holmyard <hholmyard3 AT earthlink.net>]

Dear Ted,
>  
> I'm not sure I am following you here. Is the theory suggesting that WAW-YOD  
> is the prefix of VAYIQRA and the resulting form is equivalent to a  perfect?
>   

HH: No, the "wa" sound is related to the regular waw conjunction and 
connects one situation with another. The idea is that originally there 
was a short verb form YAQTUL, which expressed either a preterite idea or 
a jussive. So the WAYYQTL form may be express a different idea than a 
regular waw joined to a long prefix form of the verb (YAQTULU). Various 
Semitic languages had two prefix verb conjugations, and the shorter form 
indicated the preterite and jussive. The WAYYQTL form is basically 
jussive in appearance. Also, there is evidence for the short form, 
unconnected with waw, functioning as a preterite in biblical Hebrew (Ps 
18:12; cf 2 Sam 22:12). Another point is that the WAYYQTL forms do not 
express normal imperfective functions such as modal ideas and customary 
action in the past. In fact, they tend to have the same functions as the 
perfective/suffix conjugation.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard
> In a message dated 3/21/2007 10:13:14 A.M. Eastern Daylight Time,  
> hholmyard3 AT earthlink.net writes:
>
> HH: I am  not familiar with the latest theory, but my understanding is 
> that current  ideas involve the possibility that there were originally 
> two prefix verb  conjugations, a long and a short form. The "conversive 
> waw" would  represent a phonological difference dependent on use of the 
> original short  form. There are occasional long form "waw conversives" 
> and these are seen  to be "secondary, analogical developments" by some 
> scholars  (Waltke-O'Connor, Biblical Hebrew Syntax, 33.1-2). So it is not 
> exactly  the waw changing the meaning of the verb, but two different 
> verbs with  different meanings, one of which is represented in the waw  
> conversive.
>
>
>  
>
>
>
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