Biblical Hebrew Forum

["K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Kenneth:

On 2/26/07, kenneth greifer <greifer AT hotmail.com> wrote:
> My understanding is that verbs can have a hiphil form that  can mean to
> cause to do something, but what about verbs that are always in the hiphil?
>
> If the verb with the root letters nun bet tet means "to look", how would
> someone say "to cause to look" if this verb is already in the hiphil form?
Have you considered that the dictionary meaning is already in the
hiphil, causative meaning? In which case, the dictionary meaning is
not exact?

This verb is pointed once as a piel, and a few other times only the
pointing indicates a hiphil, is that pointing always right?

> Sincerely,
>
> Kenneth Greifer
> USA

Karl W. Randolph.