Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Yitzhak Sapir" <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>]

On 2/22/07, pporta AT oham.net <pporta AT oham.net> wrote:
> I read in an electronic search program (BibleWorks) that "LUQ.FX" (2Ki 2:10)
> is a Qal passive participle, masculine singular absolute.
> In DBD (page 544) I read it is a Pu'al form.
> Which do you think is right?
> If the right one is the second, would it be Pu'al construct Infinitive?

Ancient Hebrew had a form known as "Qal passive" or "G passive".
In Hebrew, this took the form of qut(t)al and yuqtal.  For example:
yullad in Gen 4:26, gunnav in Ex 22,6, yuttan in Lev 11:38.  This is
not a participle but a complete archaic verb form.  The verb LQX is
not generally used in the Piel, so we may suspect that in this case
we have a Qal passive, but perhaps revocalized as a Pual.

See also here:
https://lists.ibiblio.org/sympa/arc/b-hebrew/2003-September/016279.html
https://lists.ibiblio.org/sympa/arc/b-hebrew/2003-September/016280.html

Yitzhak Sapir