Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peter AT qaya.org>]

On 09/01/2007 18:50, Wayne Ingalls wrote:
> I think the "Heber" understanding comes from the book of Jasher 68:25.  
>   

Which "book of Jasher" are you quoting? As I understand from a recent 
discussion on another list, there are at least two such books extant, 
but none is ancient or the original referred to in the Hebrew Bible. The 
book published in London in 1750/1 and reissued by Rosicrucians in the 
USA around 1935 is recognised to be an 18th century forgery by Jacob 
Ilive. The book published in New York in 1840 and previously in Venice 
in 1624/5 probably originates in mediaeval Spain. There is also an 1829 
edition by Albinus Flaccus, probably yet another work. In fact Wikipedia 
suggests that the situation is even more complex, see 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jasher.


--
Peter Kirk
E-mail:  peter AT qaya.org
Blog:    http://speakertruth.blogspot.com/
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