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  • From: Yigal Levin <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
  • To: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Sam 1:28 -- Asked - Lent??
  • Date: Sat, 28 Oct 2006 18:44:38 +0200

The use of the root $)L is a play on verse 20, in which Hannah names her son $emu)el "because I have asked (for) him of the Lord". Verses 27-28 emphasize this theme by using the same root four times.

An interesting point here, of course, is that the name $emu)el (Samuel) has nothing to do with the verb $)L. $emu)el means "his name is God", or "God has named", or, if the shin is originally a sin, perhaps "God has placed". A name meaning "asked of God" would be "Shealtiel". On the other hand, "because I have asked (for) him of the Lord" would have been a perfect explanation for the name Shaul (Saul), who of course appears later on in the book, without a birth narrative.

I suspect, although of course I have no proof, that there was an original Saul birth story here that the author of I Samuel, not really a fan of Saul's, took over and attributed to Samuel's birth (or combined with an existing Samuel birth story). But that's mainly conjecture.

Yigal Levin


----- Original Message ----- From: "K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
To: "B-Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Friday, October 27, 2006 8:50 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Sam 1:28 -- Asked - Lent??


Chris:

Look again at the context. Especially verse 11. "Lent" is an incorrect
translation. A more correct yet not too rigidly Hebraic translation,
"I ask that he be for the Lord all his days, he was asked to be for
the Lord." In other words, she was asking Eli to take her son to be
with him in God's service.

Karl W. Randolph.

On 10/27/06, Chris and Nel <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net> wrote:
1 Samuel 1:28 -- "I have lent him to the Lord .... He is lent to the Lord"

The first verb Perfect-Hiphil and the second verb Qal-Participle; I sat and
I read and I thought and I looked up and I thought and I read again! I even
read a complex synopsis of Hiphil and was left entirely in the dark about
this. It beats me how we arrive at Lent from Asked/begged. What more can I
say? The REAL issue for me is why not 'NaTaN'. A simple 'give' and be done
with it.

And besides all this how can Gesenius and others say 'Lent'. This would
imply that Hannah, at some stage, expects him back, but this was NOT the vow
she prayed.

Am I not learning things correctly or what? I have just began an
intermediate Hebrew book by Ehud Ben Zvi and he does not even mention this
anomaly.

Regards
Chris.
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