Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Chris and Nel" <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net>]

1 Samuel 1:28 -- "I have lent him to the Lord ....  He is lent to the Lord"

The first verb Perfect-Hiphil and the second verb Qal-Participle;  I sat and 
I read and I thought and I looked up and I thought and I read again!  I even 
read a complex synopsis of Hiphil and was left entirely in the dark about 
this. It beats me how we arrive at Lent from Asked/begged.  What more can I 
say?  The REAL issue for me is why not 'NaTaN'.  A simple 'give' and be done 
with it.

And besides all this how can Gesenius and others say 'Lent'. This would 
imply that Hannah, at some stage, expects him back, but this was NOT the vow 
she prayed.

Am I not learning things correctly or what?  I have just began an 
intermediate Hebrew book by Ehud Ben Zvi and he does not even mention this 
anomaly.

Regards
Chris.