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  • From: Harold Holmyard <hholmyard AT ont.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Psalm 14 'smoothed' to Romans 3 in Greek OT
  • Date: Wed, 18 Oct 2006 14:51:09 -0500

Schmuel wrote:

HH: Klein does not use the words "rigging" or
"smoothing,"

Schmuel True. He uses the word "insertion".

HH: An insertion does not have to imply a
deliberate intention to alter the text the way the
words "rigging" and "smoothing" do.


Either way it was a major blunder in the Greek
OT directly related to the New Testament text, which is the basic issue at hand.

HH: As I explained before, changing one hundred
verses or so in the LXX to match the NT is not a
blunder but a deliberate policy, for it calls for
too many changes to be a mere blunder, it seems.


Your welcome. Of course it does support direct
NT influence on the Greek OT, as does the
Cainan example.

HH: The example in the Psalms shows NT influence on the Septuagint.

The 'massive conclusions' are
based on a number of factor, not least of which
is the general orphan status of the late Greek
OT readings.

HH: What are you talking about besides this example? And even here in Psalm 14, the reading is attested in texts of other languages, so I am unclear about your use of the term "orphan." The Psalm 14 LXX plus is judged not to be the original reading, if that is what you mean.

That is a huge textual
difficulty. Combined with the huge
difficulties in trying to place a Greek text in
the mouth of the Lord Jesus Christ in Israel or
even as the basis of the apostolic writings
about the 1st century events in Israel. One
problem is that you actually have to change the
words that Jesus would have spoken, unless you
have a theory that he read from a Greek text,
even in the Temple !

HH: The question of whether Jesus spoke Greek is unsettled, but the NT is in Greek, so naturally it might refer to the Greek OT for Bible quotes. If Jesus spoke Aramaic, then none of the Greek words reflect his very words.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard




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