Biblical Hebrew Forum

[kgraham0938 AT comcast.net]

Oh I see you are taking it to be appositional.  Good deal.
--
Kelton Graham 
KGRAHAM0938 AT comcast.net

-------------- Original message -------------- 
From: "Yonah Mishael" <yonahmishael AT gmail.com> 

> So, you understand the three direct objects to be WHAT exactly? 
> 
> "God made TWO great lights: sun, moon, and stars." That's not two. From 
> Harold's translation above, I would say that he and I are in agreement that 
> the "greater light" and "lesser light" are parenthetical to explain what 
> the 
> two great lights are, while "the stars" is the SECOND of the direct 
> objects: 
> (1) "the two great lights"; and, (2) "the stars." 
> 
> Be well, 
> Yonah 
> 
> On 9/3/06, kgraham0938 AT comcast.net wrote: 
> > 
> > I always took the tifha marker to act like a comma instead of making 
> > something repeat itself twice. I would take the "ve`et hacocaviym' as a 
> > third object of the verb `asah. 
> > 
> > -- 
> > Kelton Graham 
> > KGRAHAM0938 AT comcast.net 
> > 
> 
> 
> -- 
> Yonah Mishael ben Avraham 
> Joplin, MO 
> yonahmishael AT gmail.com 
> _______________________________________________ 
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>From millenia05 AT earthlink.net  Mon Sep  4 12:49:19 2006
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From: "John B. Senterfitt" <millenia05 AT earthlink.net>
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On the question of "origin of Sanhedrin".

According to Exodus chapter 24 there was "seventy of the elders" that is =
to say Seventy out of the elders that were available.

While the use of "seventy" seems to be a good foundation for all future =
use from there as we see it develop in scripture.=20

However the term "Sanhedrin" does seem to come from Greek origin.

I am endeavoring to copy and paste from the newest version of  Concise =
Oxford English Dictionary (Eleventh Edition)

Sanhedrin (also Sanhedrim )=20

noun the highest court of justice and the supreme council in ancient =
Jerusalem.=20

ORIGIN

from late Hebrew sanhedrin, from Greek sunedrion 'council', from sun- =
'with'+ hedra 'seat'.

aah! So now can we meet on middle ground and call it the "Council Seat" =
or "Seat of Council"?

So at any rate, may we get off this question and on to others where we =
can agree on?

John B. Senterfitt 
>From bjwvmw AT com-pair.net  Mon Sep  4 15:10:41 2006
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From: "Bryant J. Williams III" <bjwvmw AT com-pair.net>
To: "b-hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>,
        "Shoshanna Walker" <rosewalk AT concentric.net>
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Daniel
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Dear Shoshanna,

Please accept my apologies for the late reply.

It is quite clear from the text that Daniel was given the dream of
Nebuchadnezzar and its interpretation by God. The text clearly indicates
that there was no intermediary, i.e. angel(s). In fact, Daniel clearly goes
out of his way to avoid any hint that he was responsible. He clearly gave
God the credit. Furthermore, for the sake of argument, even if an angel of
God did give the vision to Daniel, it still came from God. Otherwise, what
you have is that the vision would be from an angel of Satan. I do not think
that is what you are claiming and Daniel is clearly indicating that the
vision was given by God; and that the wise-men and astrologers and such were
not able to do it. They could not since no one is able to declare the dream
and the interpretation. Daniel, with God's intervention and as Daniel
claimed, was able to do both.

Furthermore, read Leon J. Wood, The Prophets of Israel, Grand Rapids, Baker
book House Company, 1979. It is dated since Dr. Wood died in 1977 from
cancer, but I do not think that there has been any book like it since. The
Hebrew list will probably correct me if I am wrong.

Rev. Bryant J. Williams III

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Shoshanna Walker" <rosewalk AT concentric.net>
To: "b-hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Sunday, September 03, 2006 7:29 AM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Daniel


Still the vision could have come from an angel - it doesn't say it
came directly from G-d, neither does Daniel claim it

Shoshanna



Dear Shoshanna,

I am sure that what you have said regarding Daniel not receiving visions
directly from God would be incorrect since it clearly says in Daniel
2:19-23,

    19 - "Then was the secret revealed unto Daniel in a night vision. Then
Daniel blessed the God of heaven. Daniel answered and said, Blessed be the
name of God for ever and ever: for wisdom and might are his: and he changeth
the times and the seasons: he removeth kings, and setteth up kings: he
giveth wisdom unto the wise, and knowledge to them that know understanding:
he revealeth the deep and secret things: he knoweth what is in the darkness,
and light dwelleth with him. I thank thee, and praise thee, O thou God of my
fathers, who hast given me wisdom and might, and hast made known unto me now
what we desired of thee: for thou hast now made known unto us the king's
matter."

Thus, Daniel himself says that he received the vision from God. The other
visions that Daniel received had the interpretation given by an angel to
God.

Now, do I accept what Scripture says or do I follow what the rabbi's have
said? Obviously, the Sanhedrin was not in operation in Babylon.

Rev. Bryant J. Williams III





----- Original Message -----
From: "Shoshanna Walker" <rosewalk AT concentric.net>
To: "b-hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Saturday, September 02, 2006 10:24 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Daniel


It don't think he was "demoted", because he's in Vilna Gaon's list of
the 48 male prophets of Israel (prophet number 44) - and apparently
there was some disagreement.

Rashi doesn't include him in his list, and I posted where the Talmud
says he was not a prophet.

I think that the best,  most common sense  and non-religious reason
why he would not be considered a prophet, is because he didn't
receive his visions directly from G-d.

Very simple.  Whether he was rejected by Sanhedrin, or even APPLIED
to Sanhedrin, I don't know - the literature is too vast for me to
figure out where to look it up.

But now I'm very curious.

Shoshanna




As for why Daniel was/is not considered a prophet, there are more than
one reasons given, the most important I heard was because he was a
court official in an enslaving kingdom. Peterö's suggestion that he
was "demoted" as a reaction to Christian citing of his prophecies
probably also played a part.
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