Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Yigal Levin <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>]

Dear Kerry,

It is impossible to speak or to read a long text without dividing it into
sub-units, which we call sentances, and the "biblcial"equivalent of is
verses. So that there must have been a tradition of how to devide up this
passage since it was originally written. However, the actual "punctuation
marks" (which is one of the functions of the cantilation marks) were only
added into the written text by the Mesoretes in the early middle ages. True,
that the Mesoretes mainly simply put in writing what was already passed down
to them through tradition. And yes, there are places in which modern
scholars have challenged the Mesoretes, when the traditional divisions did
not make sense. In this case, the traditional reading makes perfect sense.
So why change it?

Yigal Levin


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Kerry VonDross" <vondross AT execpc.com>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Tuesday, August 22, 2006 2:06 PM
Subject: [b-hebrew] Isaiah 30:13-14; conjunction


> Dear B-Hebrew Members,
>
> I do not know the Hebrew language.  Therefore, I utilize a Parallel 
> Hebrew-English Bible and an Expository Dictionary for a comprehension of 
> Bible passages. The Interlinear Bible that I use is a translation of the 
> Masoretic text by Jay Green, Sr., published in 1976.  I am attempting to 
> understand Isaiah 30:13-14.  A literal translation in English is provided:
>
> "13 So this iniquity shall be to you as a broken section falling, like the 
> bulging out in a high wall, the breaking of which comes suddenly in an 
> instant.
> 14 And its smashing is as the smashing of a potter's vessel; when broken 
> in pieces, he has no pity; for in its breaking there is not found a sherd 
> to carry fire from the hearth, nor to skim water from a well."
>
> This interlinear translation also provides the original Masoretic text and 
> list a word-for-word English translation above each Hebrew word.  I am 
> writing it left-to-right, not as it is found in Hebrew written 
> right-to-left.  It reads:
>
> "13 therefore / shall be / to you / iniquity / this / as a breach / 
> falling / bulging out / in a wall / made high, / which / suddenly, /  in 
> an instant, / comes /  its smashing. /
> 14 And its smashing / (is) as smashing / the / vessel of / a potter's / 
> (when) broken, / not / he has pity / and not /
> there is found / in its breaking / a shard / to take up / fire / from the 
> hearth, / or to skim / water / from a pool."
>
> Since the original text does not have a period, punctuation mark or space 
> that separates verse 13 from verse 14, is this something that has been 
> supplied by "modern" translators?  In other words, could the break and 
> separation of these verses be at a different location?  Could it be 
> translated to read as follows:
>
> "13 therefore / shall be / to you / iniquity / this / as a breach / 
> falling / bulging out / in a wall / made high, / which / suddenly, /  in 
> an instant, / comes.
> 14 Its smashing / and its smashing / (is) as smashing / the / vessel of / 
> a potter's / (when) broken, / not / he has pity / and not /
> there is found / in its breaking / a shard / to take up / fire / from the 
> hearth, / or to skim / water / from a pool."
>
> This is what I am attempting to understand.  How is the conjunction of 
> verse 13 and verse 14 determined?
>
> Kerry VonDross
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