Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Uri Hurwitz <uhurwitz AT yahoo.com>]

Yigal Levin wrote,
   
  "While the Merneptah stele (which is usually now dated to c. 1207 BCE) is 
certainly significant, it does NOT really "prove" any of the biblical story. 
It speaks of the Pharaoh "destroying" Israel WITHIN the land of Canaan. This 
is, of course, an exaggeration, but the text does NOT mention the Israelites 
in Egypt or the Exodus, and the Bible makes NO mention of any battles 
between Israelites and Egyptians within Canaan. So while the stele does 
"prove" the existence of a people called "Israel", living within Canaan at 
the end of the 13th century, it actually contradicts the "main line" of 
biblical history."

   Well, yes and no. Like everything pertaining to Early Israel, different
  perspectives are possible:
   
   Some, Albright and Meek for instance,  held
  that not all Hebrews went down to Egypt, some never did .And thus
  the Merneptah stele refers to those groups, and doesn't necessarily
  refer  to their kinsmen who were in Egypt.
   
   Another, totally different, approach considers this stele as a
  temporal indicator  to the  date when the Exodus was
   completed, and the Israelites returned to Canaan.
   
    From both of these very different perspectives, it has no bearing,
   whether positive or negative, on the Exodus tradition.
   
    Uri  Hurwitz



                
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>From kgraham0938 AT comcast.net  Sun Jul  2 15:56:45 2006
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] One scholar's' opinion
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I think the NET bible makes a good point with regards to the disjuntive 
clause (conjunction + noun + verb) in verse 2 is meant to give background 
information for the following narrative.  If it were connected the author 
could have easily used a vav conversive + verb + subject.  

And secondly as already mentioned a lamed + HAYAH is usually transated as 
'became.'   As discussed earlier this year with regards to Gen 2:7. 
--
Kelton Graham 
KGRAHAM0938 AT comcast.net

-------------- Original message -------------- 
From: Harold Holmyard <hholmyard AT ont.com> 

> Dear Don, 
> 
> >Can the word "was" in the verse "Now the earth was unformed and void" be 
> translated "became"? 
> > 
> >This is one response from a Hebrew Scholar: 
> > 
> >When the word hayah refers to a change in state, then it takes a le- 
> >before the 
> noun; here we have no le- so this is a report of a state that was, not that 
> became something from something else. At this stage in the Creation story, 
> we 
> are just getting the first reports on the initial state of chaos (an early 
> mix 
> of time/space/energy/matter), which only later "became" something else more 
> ordered. 
> > 
> > 
> 
> HH: That's a good comment. 
> 
> Yours, 
> Harold Holmyard 
> 
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>From wattswestmaas AT eircom.net  Sun Jul  2 16:01:33 2006
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Subject: [b-hebrew] Yitzhak, Canaanites and original question.
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>YITZHAK WROTE
> The problem with your original suggestion or question that it was so out 
> of
> line and inconsistent with the evidence, that it appeared you needed a 
> better
> understanding of the evidence.

CHRIS REPLIES:
         ?