Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com>]

Hey, I had another question.

As I was contemplating the sedarim issue an thought popped in my head:
Why does the Psalms have sedarim at all?

You have the text divided into 149 Psalm divisions. You have this 
divided into 5 books (with these breaks being located at the beginning 
of a Psalm. But then you have the Psalms divided into 19 sedarim!?! 
(which do not line up with the starting/ending points of the various Psalms.

In regards to referencing, I can't really see an ancient referring to 
the sedarim breaks instead of the Psalm breaks. But then again I'm not 
them, nor living in their setting - so maybe they did.

Befuddling if you ask me.

--


John

"If you don't behave as you believe, you will end by believing as you 
behave."
-Archbishop Fulton J. Sheen.