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  • From: Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] Psalms and Sedarim
  • Date: Thu, 08 Jun 2006 23:33:00 -0500

Hey, I had another question.

As I was contemplating the sedarim issue an thought popped in my head:
Why does the Psalms have sedarim at all?

You have the text divided into 149 Psalm divisions. You have this divided into 5 books (with these breaks being located at the beginning of a Psalm. But then you have the Psalms divided into 19 sedarim!?! (which do not line up with the starting/ending points of the various Psalms.

In regards to referencing, I can't really see an ancient referring to the sedarim breaks instead of the Psalm breaks. But then again I'm not them, nor living in their setting - so maybe they did.

Befuddling if you ask me.

--


John

"If you don't behave as you believe, you will end by believing as you behave."
-Archbishop Fulton J. Sheen.




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