Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Yitzhak Sapir" <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>]

On 6/2/06, Philip Brown II wrote:

> Neither HALOT, Holladay, nor BDB provide a gloss for the kethib lemma QFWEH
> found in 1Kgs 7:23; Jer. 31:39; Zec 1:16.

Dear Philip,

The word is not feminine. This can be clearly seen by the verbs used
in each case,
which are all masculine forms.  Furthermore, if the final -h was
feminine, it would
change to a -t in Jer 31:38/39.

The Kethib is only QWH.  Vowels are not used when writing out Kethib forms, 
for
obvious reasons, and a version with vowels only shows some kind of 
assimilation
between Kethib and Qere.

My feeling is that the cases in 1 Kgs and Zec are cases of a prononun use.  
That
is, QWH refers to "its line."  Note the constant use of the pronoun in
reference to
the Yamm's edges and height in the same verse in Kings.  In Zec, the obvious
reference of the line, if it means "its line" is the house of which
the same verse
speaks.

In Jeremiah, the -h cannot be a pronoun suffix by standard grammar as the word
appears to be in construct to the follow word hmdh.  Nevertheless, there is a
comment in the Hebrew University's critical edition of Jeremiah, "qwh hmdh: G
+ pron" which I guess means that the Greek has added a pronoun in this case.
Another comment refers to a variant in some Greek versions of E`LPI'S in this
case, which in a footnote is attributed to dittography and the root "to hope".

Yitzhak Sapir
http://toldot.blogspot.com