Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Harold Holmyard <hholmyard AT ont.com>]

Dear James,

> Thanks for the explanations guys. So, if I understand 
> correctly, a theoretical 'original' version of the 
> completed text would have had no 'pe' at the end of 
> each open verse but rather a line of space in its
> place?
>  

HH: I don't know if there would have been a line of space in the
original (from Isaiah, Amos, or whoever).

Yours,
Harold Holmyard