Biblical Hebrew Forum

[<tladatsi AT charter.net>]

Hello Herman & List,

This question was asked - "The idea that it is an Aramaic insertion into the 
Hebrew would, i.m.h.o., be incorrect. Why such an insertion and with what 
purpose?" 

I am certainly no Aramaic scholar but I do have an opinion as the what could 
be the purpose of an Aramaic word.  Some else already pointed out that it 
could be a place name as the KJV does "the Golden City" on the assumption 
that it is derived from the Aramaic word Dehab meaning gold (a cognate of 
zahab it is believed).

However I think a look at the broader context is needed to perhaps get a 
sense of why an Aramaic word might be inserted.  Isaiah 13 predicts the 
overthrow of Babylon.  Isaiah 14 predicts that Yahweh will again favor Isreal 
and Bablyon will become Israel's captive.  When that happens Israel is to 
taunt the King of Babylon.  The taunt is "Eyk sabat neges sabat madehebah" or 
"How rests the oppresor, how rests Madehebah".  If this word is a Aramaic 
synonym for the King of Bablyon, one known to Hebrew speakers, it makes 
perfect sense to insert it.  Perhaps it is overly familiar term, like calling 
the Queen of England "Beth".  Perhaps it is a highly honorific term (if it 
does use the Aramaic root for gold, this would make sense), like "His 
Majesty", which would be appropriately ironic now that he has been overthrown 
and enslaved.  To insult someone in their native language is generally 
considered to be pretty clever (I might insult some French adventurer by 
saying "First he dared but now he's merde").  This not much more than 
speculation of course but the point is that there could a great many very 
good reasons to include an Aramaic word when insulting the enslaved former 
King of Bablyon.--
Jack Tladatsi