Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Steve Miller" <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>]

> Jerry Shepherd Sent: Tuesday, March 28, 2006 2:26 PM
> To: b-hebrew
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Psalm 30 title: house of David vs. the house
> (temple)
> 
> Steve,
> 
> To comlpicate your question, and yet at the same time, to possibly an
> answer to it, I call your attention to an article by Bruce Waltke in JBL
> 110 (1991): 583-96, entitled, "Superscripts, Postscripts, or Both," in
> which he argues very cogently that there has been a wholesale corruption
> in the transmission of the book of Psalms, where some of the data in the
> superscript actually constitutes a postscript for the preceding psalm.
> Specifically, his thesis is that all the material before the authorship
> ascription, i.e., the genre and performance directions, belongs to the
> preceding psalm.  So in this particular case, all the material up to the
> phrase, ledawid, more properly serves as a postscript for Psalm 29.
> Notice that Psalm 29 refers to the temple whereas the body of Psalm 30
> does not.

[Steve Miller] Thanks Jerry. James Thirtle "The Titles of the Psalms" 1904
gave the theory that the musical instructions followed the psalms and should
be applied to the preceding Psalm. He based it on Hab 3:1,19. But he didn't
move the title for Psalm 30. 

> 
> In any case, your suggestion that perhaps habayit ledawid might mean
> "house of David", seems unlikely in that the author would almost certainly
> have used a construct chain if that was what he had meant.
> 
Thanks.