Biblical Hebrew Forum

["George Athas" <george.athas AT moore.edu.au>]

The use of the preposition lamed often signifies a characteristic. With
regards the Psalms, I think it is easier to take the preposition this way
each time you encounter it in the express LeDawid. As such, it does not
actually mean "of David" in the sense of authorship, but rather "Davidic" in
the sense of content or tradition. Thus, the 'Davidic Psalms' are not
necessarily Psalms written by David (though they might be). Rather, they are
Davidic Psalms which imbibe Davidic theology and tradition, no matter who
wrote them. In this regard, even the psalms written in the first person
about incidents in David's life could have been written by someone else much
later than David, a bit like a monologue in one of Shakespeare's historical
plays. The issue is content, not authorship.
 
In this regard, the connection between the Jerusalem temple and the Davidic
dynasty may be the point of Psalm 30. It does not have to be David who is
the speaker. In fact, going by the strength of the tradition, you would
imagine that the speaker would be understood as Solomon (if it is talking
about the dedication of the first temple in Jerusalem). And good old Solomon
is as 'Davidic' as they come.
 
Best Regards, 

GEORGE ATHAS
Moore Theological College
1 Kings St, Newtown 2042, Australia
Ph: (+61 2) 9577 9774
 <mailto:george.athas AT moore.edu.au> george.athas AT moore.edu.au