Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Neil Mc Fadzen" <nmcf AT optusnet.com.au>]

I am presently researching the translation of malkut in Daniel 1:1 and 2:1 
because nearly all translations render this word as 'reign'. The NWT is very 
much different because it renders this word as 'kingship' which means that 
the 'third year' of Jehoiakim does not refer to third regnal year but to the 
'third year' of his revolt, rebellion or vassalage.

The above NWT rendering removes much of the historical difficulties that have 
surrounded this passage and thus puts this verse in a theological context 
relating to God's soverignty of the Kingdom through kingship. I would welcome 
any contribution to this debate.

Neil Mc Fadzen MA
>From hholmyard AT ont.com  Mon Nov 14 15:12:21 2005
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Date: Mon, 14 Nov 2005 14:08:55 -0600
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From: "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Malkut in Daniel 1:1
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Dear Neil,

>I am presently researching the translation of malkut in Daniel 1:1
>and 2:1 because nearly all translations render this word as 'reign'.
>The NWT is very much different because it renders this word as
>'kingship' which means that the 'third year' of Jehoiakim does not
>refer to third regnal year but to the 'third year' of his revolt,
>rebellion or vassalage.
>
>The above NWT rendering removes much of the historical difficulties
>that have surrounded this passage and thus puts this verse in a
>theological context relating to God's soverignty of the Kingdom
>through kingship. I would welcome any contribution to this debate.

HH: I don't see how you get such big differences out of the change
from "reign" to "kingship." I see the two words as synonyms.

                                        Yours,
                                        Harold Holmyard