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  • From: "Neil Mc Fadzen" <nmcf AT optusnet.com.au>
  • To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] Malkut in Daniel 1:1
  • Date: Tue, 15 Nov 2005 06:43:06 +1100

I am presently researching the translation of malkut in Daniel 1:1 and 2:1
because nearly all translations render this word as 'reign'. The NWT is very
much different because it renders this word as 'kingship' which means that
the 'third year' of Jehoiakim does not refer to third regnal year but to the
'third year' of his revolt, rebellion or vassalage.

The above NWT rendering removes much of the historical difficulties that have
surrounded this passage and thus puts this verse in a theological context
relating to God's soverignty of the Kingdom through kingship. I would welcome
any contribution to this debate.

Neil Mc Fadzen MA
>From hholmyard AT ont.com Mon Nov 14 15:12:21 2005
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Date: Mon, 14 Nov 2005 14:08:55 -0600
To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
From: "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Malkut in Daniel 1:1
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Dear Neil,

>I am presently researching the translation of malkut in Daniel 1:1
>and 2:1 because nearly all translations render this word as 'reign'.
>The NWT is very much different because it renders this word as
>'kingship' which means that the 'third year' of Jehoiakim does not
>refer to third regnal year but to the 'third year' of his revolt,
>rebellion or vassalage.
>
>The above NWT rendering removes much of the historical difficulties
>that have surrounded this passage and thus puts this verse in a
>theological context relating to God's soverignty of the Kingdom
>through kingship. I would welcome any contribution to this debate.

HH: I don't see how you get such big differences out of the change
from "reign" to "kingship." I see the two words as synonyms.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard





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