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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Tenses and aspects; was: footnotes

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  • From: "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Tenses and aspects; was: footnotes
  • Date: Mon, 08 Aug 2005 18:48:56 -0500

I'm sorry, I can't help you much there. Written Chinese is
mostly Mandarin, I speak Cantonese. However, I have learned
enough characters to recognize that in John 1:1-15, the
first adverb specifying time is in verse 14. Then that
adverb has as much to do with specifying that the writer
had personally experienced what he was writing about as
time. There are plenty of verbs in the past before that
verse.

Genesis 1 has what looks like more than half the verbs
without a time specifying adverb in Chinese, and some of
the others I'm not sure because I never studied Chinese
writing, at least not formally.

Chinese also does not have grammaticized aspect.

I have no problem with saying that Biblical Hebrew had no
grammaticized tense.

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: "Peter Kirk" <peterkirk AT qaya.org>
>
...
> In most cases the time is clear from the context. For example, the
> entire narrative of a historical book must be past. And in such cases
> there is no need for a specifying adverb, so none is written. Isn't this
> also true of Chinese?
>
> --
> Peter Kirk
> peter AT qaya.org (personal)
> peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
> http://www.qaya.org/

--
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