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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] YHWH Derivation - a dead end

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  • From: Rolf Furuli <furuli AT online.no>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] YHWH Derivation - a dead end
  • Date: Thu, 05 May 2005 17:53:03 +0200

Dear Kelton,

I see the logic in your reasonings, but your conclusions are not the only ones possible. To know the name of someone did not only mean for the Hebrews to know the letters of the name or how it was pronounced. It is obvious that when God said to Moses: "I know you by name" (Ex 33:12), it meant that he knew the personality and deeds of Moses; he knew Moses intimately. In Ex 34:5-7 YHWH proclaimed the name of YHWH, and that did not mean that he pronounced the name, but rather that the attributes of God was proclaimed. In the song of Moses it is said: "for I shall declare the name of YHWH," and that includes God's dealings with Israel and a description of his personality.

When Moses asks about the name of God in Ex 3:13, there is no problem with the view that YHWH first shows that he will be known as one who both has a purpose and who fulfills that purpose (I will prove to be what I will prove to be"), and "`I will prove to be` has sent me to you." If we compare Ex 3:14 with the passages above, we see that this verse alone would be a full answer to the question "What is his name?" In addition, we find God's personal name in 3:15. Thus, both his purpose and his personal name identify him. On this basis I see no reason to use )hye with present reference in 3:14 when it in most other cases has future reference.

If Ex 3:13-15 is written to teach the readers that YHWH is a form of the Hebrew verb HYH or the Aramaic verb HWH, there is a problem with the grammatical persons. If YHWH is a verb, it must be third person singular, but should we not expect first person singular as in )ehye?


Best regards

Rolf Furuli
University of Oslo

kgraham0938 AT comcast.net wrote:

@Rolf:

Hey Rolf, I think the reason why many translators as well as myself translate
'EH:YEH 'E$ER 'EH:YEH as I AM who I AM as opposed to I will be who I will be
is based upon Moses' statement to YHWH in the previous verse. He says

" And they will say to me what is his name? What do I say to them?"
Moses:[question] What is your name?
YHWH:[answer] I will be who I will be

Then he goes on to say " Tell them I will be sent you."
Does not make any sense. I will be who I will be does not answer the question. And secondly if 'EH:YEH is a 1cs of YHWH (3ms), translated as "I will be" then you'd have to translate YHWH as "He will be." --
Kelton Graham KGRAHAM0938 AT comcast.net

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