Biblical Hebrew Forum

["wattswestmaas" <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net>]

OK,  I would like, please, to ask you for your much VALUED comments and
advice (one last time) about what I have written below concerning the
construction that is found in Exodus 34:7, I can assure you that this will
help me enormously in the future to deal with similar situations.  Thankyou.
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It seems to me by comparing the exact phrase in other scriptures that there
are 'subtle' indications that the translation is a translation of
"Understanding" and "Interpretation" rather than of "Grammar and syntax".

 We have the translation in hebraic thought as:
"but (or and) In the acquitting, God will certainly (absolutely) not acquit"
ok fine!

 Now when I look at Jeremiah 30:11 and Nahum 1:3 where this same
construction is used I find that the english translation has supplied words
that can ONLY be INFERRED by the context of the preceding statements.
Jeremiah supplies "not completely unpunished" in other words some sin will
be aquitted/overlooked because of God's merciful approach and His dealing
with His nation!!  In Nahum we have the word "wicked' supplied which is
strong and further more, much harsher than Jeremiah and harsher than exodus
34:7.and by the way leaves no room whatsoever for "aquittal"!!  Whereas in
Nahum and Jeremiah there is a HINT of aquittal after some level of
'Addressing the Sin'.  Clearly three different meanings are provided for the
same grammar and wording????

What compounds my lack of understanding  is that, for example, Jeremiah
49:12 where the Inf.Absolute is Qal and the finite verb following it is
Niphal, reflexive back to the object  --  this is clear.  Except one slight
problem,  it has been stated that the piel of NKH means to aquit.  What does
the qal signify? I just feel that the English translations are in-precise
and too free with whatever word they feel seems to best describe the
interpretation.  Am I wrong?  then please show me.  (there is, I see, a
masoretic note to this but I have no access to these things).  But whatever
the case it seems that the translation is still free to translate it as the
same as always - he shall not go unpunished. or the antithesis  --  he shall
surely be punished!!! But this latter is a dangerous understanding. for then
we would have to change completely Jeremiah 30:11 would'nt we? and say that
God is going to punish Israel in the same way that He will punish the
Nations.  After all this is how the construction is translated elswhere.


I notice in Genesis 24:41, first phrase where we read "then you shall be
CLEARED from this oath"  Niphal.  Released from the burden of this
responsibility obviously,

Jeremiah 25:29, here we read Two Niphals. yet the translators have bored us
yet again with the same repetitous exclamation. "you will not go unpunished"
(Please forgive the frustration).

I hope that some of you might be patient enough to help me through this if
you really see that I am  totally barking up the wrong tree in my
questioning.  I have even doubted myself that these questionings are maybe
unneccessary and that I should just accept what i don't understand and go
on.  But that is really a little difficult for me to do sometimes.

thanks, Chris Watts.