Biblical Hebrew Forum

["wattswestmaas" <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net>]

Peter,

Would it then be a thoroughly correct and empirical statement to INSIST that
there is no reasonable  argument in existence that can even suggest the
possibility that either vowel pointing or square script was being used in
the time that Moses wrote (or his personal scribe) wrote hebrew.

Do scholars have access to sufficient documentation that safely precludes
such INSISTENCE that a possibility might arise to the contrary.

thanking you,  Chris from Ireland.