Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>]

Peter:

Edomite, I stand corrected. That’s what I get for writing quickly and 
somewhat carelessly.

The phrase “before Israel had a king” I found somewhat problematic, until I 
realized that it did not require Israel to have a king at the time it was 
written. It’s like the teen who demands that his father give him a car, 
“because cousin X has had two cars given him by his father, before I had a 
car; he is younger than I and I still don’t have one.”

And was the Dan mentioned in Genesis 14:14 the same as the Dan after Moses? 
My understanding is that Dan was not that uncommon a Semetic name, even a 
nation in what is now southern Turkey had that name (mentioned in the book 
“Hellenosemitica”).

I think you have done a pretty good job of staying neutral on this question, 
calling for evidence, not mere speculation. I agree with you that the 
historical and archeological evidence is too poor to prove either side.

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: "Peter Kirk" <peterkirk AT qaya.org>

> 
> Possibly, but then how do you explain "before any king reigned over 
> the Israelites" in v.31? And "Dan" in 14:14 must be a post-Mosaic 
> editorial change. But note that I say "editorial change", not 
> "authorship". I see no clear evidence of post-Mosaic authorship in 
> the Pentateuch, other than minor editorial changes which might 
> include the addition of the last part of Genesis 36:31. On the 
> other hand, I see no clear evidence the other way.
> 
> -- Peter Kirk
> peter AT qaya.org (personal)
> peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
> http://www.qaya.org/
-- 
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