Biblical Hebrew Forum

["C. Stirling Bartholomew" <jacksonpollock AT earthlink.net>]

On 2/21/05 9:00 AM, "Bucher, Christina" <bucherca AT etown.edu> wrote:

> If the Germanic tribes came from Central
> Asia, and if the way of reading Hindu texts mentioned in the preceding
> paragraph is correct (two pretty big "ifs" with our current evidence),
> then it is entirely possible that they are etymologically related.

And if they were "etymologically related" what valid inference could be
drawn from that fact? Getting back to philology which is what we do here,
what kinds of viable conclusions can we draw from nothing more than an
etymological relationship?

This is a thin reed to lean on.


greetings,
Clay Bartholomew