Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Trevor Peterson <abuian AT access4less.net>]

C. Stirling Bartholomew wrote:

> It seems that  "construct state" as that term is commonly used is more than
> just a morphological condition. Unless I have misunderstood the grammarians,
> the term construct state is also used of a syntactical function that binds
> two or more constituents into a semantic relationship of some kind. In this
> case an infinitive construct could fill the same slot in a clause as a noun
> in the construct state.

Well, it could anyway, regardless of what we call the relationship. I 
agree, though, there is a fuzziness to the terminology that complicates 
matters. As I said, though, I think we get a peek at the distinction in 
the way we talk about a noun being in construct but don't talk about one 
being in absolute.
> I understand your point, but I have not found the actual use of the
> terminology in the grammars to strictly follow the distinction you have
> made. There is very often a blending in the grammars which mixes the issues
> of morphology and function. So that the same term can be used with both
> referents. This creates no end of chaos in Greek grammars and to some extent
> it is also present in Hebrew grammars.

Agreed.

Trevor Peterson
CUA/Semitics