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  • From: Uri Hurwitz <uhurwitz AT yahoo.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] Neh. 4:17
  • Date: Sat, 22 Jan 2005 18:32:37 -0800 (PST)


Any suggestion for the meaning of the last three words in Neh. 4:17, ish
shilh(.)o hamayim?

Each word is perfectly clear but not when combined in a phrase. I seem to
remember that it was omitted in one of the LXX versions; I interpret this to
mean that the ancient translator felt, like me now, that the phrase was too
garbled to have a meaning..

Uri


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>From kgraham0938 AT comcast.net Sat Jan 22 23:59:40 2005
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From: kgraham0938 AT comcast.net
To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Gen 49:10
Date: Sun, 23 Jan 2005 04:59:35 +0000
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@jim

> Though I am somewhat sympathetic to hypothetical emendation, I think in
> order for it to have staying power, it has to be reflected textually
> somewhere. That is, in one of the Hebrew ms or in one of the versions
> somewhere needs to translate accordingly. I say this because if the
> word were differently divided in any textual tradition, translators
> would have seen it. Is Steward's emendation present in any of the
> versions? Not according to BHS (which only notes that some mss of the
> Sam. Pent. omit the yod). Even the LXX's rendering maintains the unity
> of the syllables.


Response: No, Stuart does not supply any versions that back him up, instead
he just says that the vowels were the Masorites opinion written long after
the text and says that we need to keep this in mind.

The only support he shows is from Professor W.L.Morgan in an article found
in Biblica 39( 1958), pp 405-25, titled Gen 49:10 and it's use in Eze 21:32.

And when I flipped to Eze 21:32 in the BHS there are some similarities, but I
did not take the time to look at the context etc. Just bouncing ideas around.

--
Kelton Graham
KGRAHAM0938 AT comcast.net







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