Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Sesamo m." <sesamox AT hotmail.com>]

Bekoraw, according to The Contemporary English Version among others, can be 
rendered as "The rights as the first-born son".
Gen 25:31 also shows that those rights not necessarily went to the 
firstborn. The fact that the tribe of Joseph is reported in the AT as having 
a "double portion" (it was treated as two separate tribes with their own 
plot in the Promised Land) seems to me to support the idea that the bekoraw 
could be transferred from the literal firstborn son to any other.

And here comes my question:
Some time ago I read that in the kingdom of Israel and Judah, the heir to 
the throne not necessarily was the first born, but the king could appoint 
any of his sons. If this is so (I'm not sure if there is agreement about 
this or it is just a theory) is this linked to the issue of the rights as 
the first-born son?

Sergio

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