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  • From: "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] GDD (was not: Self-mutilation)
  • Date: Mon, 11 Oct 2004 16:17:23 -0500

Dear Karl,

I have no problem viewing post-Esilic Hebrew as post-Exilic Jewish Latin. As such, one cannot rule out the possibility that GDD in the Damascus Document as an Aramaic loan word or backwards development from a noun.

HH: Here is one paragraph from the long article for Dave that at least shows you have some basis for your theory about Jer 5:7's use of GDD:
http://articles.jerusalemperspective.com/articles/DisplayArticle.aspx?ArticleID=1604

The view that Aramaic was the language of conversation in first-century Israel seems to be supported by the Aramaic words found in the New Testament. Many scholars have seen Jesus' words to Jairus' twelve-year-old daughter, "Talitha kumi" (Mk. 5:41), as proof that he spoke Aramaic. Yet, even if Jesus spoke to her in Hebrew, he could have said "Talitha kumi." One must not forget that many Aramaic words in various forms found their way into Hebrew in the Second Temple period. The command to "get up" kumi is the same word in Hebrew and Aramaic.

Yours.
Harold Holmyard




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