Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>]

Dear Karl,

> I have no problem viewing post-Esilic Hebrew as post-Exilic Jewish 
> Latin. As such, one cannot rule out the possibility that GDD in the 
> Damascus Document as an Aramaic loan word or backwards development 
> from a noun.

HH: Here is one paragraph from the long article for Dave that at 
least shows you have some basis for your theory about Jer 5:7's use 
of GDD:
http://articles.jerusalemperspective.com/articles/DisplayArticle.aspx?ArticleID=1604

The view that Aramaic was the language of conversation in 
first-century Israel seems to be supported by the Aramaic words found 
in the New Testament. Many scholars have seen Jesus' words to Jairus' 
twelve-year-old daughter, "Talitha kumi" (Mk. 5:41), as proof that he 
spoke Aramaic. Yet, even if Jesus spoke to her in Hebrew, he could 
have said "Talitha kumi." One must not forget that many Aramaic words 
in various forms found their way into Hebrew in the Second Temple 
period. The command to "get up" kumi is the same word in Hebrew and 
Aramaic.

                                Yours.
                                Harold Holmyard